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To receive 2.0 contact hours of continuing education credit 0.2 CEU ; , please provide the following information: 1. Type or print your name and address in the spaces provided. 2. Mail this completed form for scoring to: American Pharmacists Association--CE Exam P.O. Box 791082 Baltimore, MD 21279-1082 3. CE processing is free for APhA members. If you are not an APhA member, enclose a $10.00 handling fee for grading the assessment instrument and issuing the Statement of Credit. A Statement of Credit will be awarded for a passing grade of 70% or better. If you fail the exam, you may retake the exam once. If you do not pass the second time, you may no longer participate in this continuing pharmacy education program. Please allow 6 weeks for processing. Pharmacists who complete this exercise successfully before September 1, 2008, can receive credit. The American Pharmacists Association is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education. The ACPE Universal Program Number assigned to the program by the accredited provider is: 202-000-05-191-H03.
Rather, we recommend a hybrid 3-step approach that works as follows: 1. Purchase: Up front, the TDR Bank would purchase "development rights" from Santa Barbara Ranch based on the estimations of entitlement value for each parcel calculated in this report. For example, if the Bank had $20 million, it would purchase the development rights on any combination of lots whose development rights value totaled $20 million. The TDR Bank would then have $20 million in credit from Santa Barbara Ranch that could be applied to receiving areas 2. Assign: The County and, potentially, the City ; would create and value "density credits" in the receiving areas based on the "willingness to pay" analysis for the additional density in those areas, and then assign those Density Credits to the TDR Bank. For example, if the County were willing to rezone the St Vincent's property to accommodate more units if the developer participates in the TDR program as our analysis suggests is possible ; , the County would create 46 Density Credits at a price of $337, 322 each. If the City were willing to rezone the Cota parking lot to accommodate residential units, then the City would create 73 Density Credits at a price of approximately $224, 500 each. See Table 5.5.1 3. Sell: These density credits would then be sold by the TDR Bank at the assigned value to willing developers in the receiving areas at any time at the market price. The total value of these Density Credits acquired by the bank would be the same as the total value of the Development Rights purchased by the TDR Bank from Santa Barbara Ranch Project. For example, if the TDR Bank had $20 million worth of credit from Santa Barbara Ranch, it could sell all of the available Density Credits to developers of the St. Vincent's property for about $15.5 million i.e. 46 x $337, 322 ; and have about $4.5 million left over to sell developers willing to build 20 units on the Cota site. It is very important to note that, as the land-use regulators in this scenario, the County and the City would become regulators of the "currency" the Density Credits ; much as the Federal Reserve Bank is the regulator of the money supply. That is, the County and the City must commit themselves to stabilizing the Density Credits by 1 ; honoring them when a developer holds them; and 2 ; not providing additional density to receiving-area developers by other means. 72, for example, 400 accolade aid kitchen mixer.
What changes, if any, do you anticipate over the next two to five years with respect to the way pharma companies communicate with physicians, pharmacists and patients?.
University of Alberta Hospital Site Pharmacy Department 8440-112 St. Edmonton, Alta. T6G 2B7 Tel: 780 ; 407-7404 Fax: 780 ; 492-0885 Contact: Carol Borynec, D.I. Pharmacist Expertise: General drug information Services are primarily for hospital staff, because accolate 20.
BRAND NAME ANES ; MARCAINE ANES ; MARCAINE * DOXORUBICIN 1 2 NORMAL SALINE A&D ABBOKINASE ACCOLATE ACCUPRIL ACCUZYME ACETIC ACID 0.25% ACHROMYCIN ACHROMYCIN ACIDOPHILUS ACTHAR ACTHAR GEL H.P. ACTIFED ACTIFED-C ACTIGALL ACTIMMUNE ACTIVASE ACTIVASE ACTIVATED ACTONEL ACTOS ACULAR ADDERALL ADENOCARD ADENOSCAN ADRENALINE ADRIAMYCIN ADSORBONAC ADVAIR 250 50 ; ADVAIR 500 50 ; ADVAIR 100 50 ADVAIR ADVAIR ADVIL AEROBID AFRIN NASAL SPRAY AFRIN NOSE DROPS AFRIN NOSE SPRAY AGGRASTAT AGGRASTAT KIT.
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Like so many federal laws, the Family and Medical Leave Act has created a raft of complex paperwork for employers, employees, and their doctors. The WH-380 certification form is lengthy and confusing. Many doctors are not sure how to fill the form, and there is little consistency between offices. One doctor may certify a patient as having a serious medical condition while another will deny the request for the same condition. Some doctors will certify almost anything as a serious medical condition. Another kink in the law is that FMLA does not allow employers to have direct contact with an employee's health care provider. The lack of contact makes it extremely difficult to resolve issues with the medical certification. Sometimes employers cannot even read what is written on the form, or the health care provider has neglected to fill out an important section. The medical certification process is cumbersome and does little to prevent irresponsible employees from abusing the system. Greinilda Anistead from Cardone FML has experience with doctors filling out the certification form incorrectly. "Doctor's don't clearly understand their obligation in completing the FMLA paperwork. One goal is to get doctors to document correctly and completely the qualifying medical conditions. Attending physicians need to be trained as it is explained to us by the DOL that we must rely on the physicians as to what falls under FMLA and what doesn't. We struggle with physicians filling out the Medical Certificate incorrectly."262 Carol Carrier of the University of Minnesota explains the different types of "Serious Health Conditions" that doctors approve for FMLA medical leave. "In some cases, the doctor might specifically indicate that workplace stress, conflicts between the employee and his her co-workers or supervisor, or other workplace factors cause or contribute to the symptoms. In one case, the doctor cited an employee's 8: 00 a.m. start time as a contributing factor. In another case, the doctor referenced the fact that the employee was at times required to work overtime. In other cases, doctors have tied intermittent leave to specific duties or responsibilities e.g., When symptoms occur, Employee should be excused from performing classroom teaching duties. ; . Dealing with such situations is extremely difficult. Supervisors do not know if the employee will come in to work on any given day."263 Kathryn Curley from AIG explains how the certification form leaves employers with many questions and few answers. "An employee reported an absence on 2 15 06. A Certification Form was sent on 2 16 06. On 2 27 the employee reported the form was never received. A second form was sent, due back 3 14. On 3 15 incomplete form was received. The incomplete form was returned to the employee to have completed, due back in 10 days on 3 26. On 3 27 the claim was denied as no complete form was returned. On 4 10 the employee returns a complete certification form. Must the employer now count these days, almost 2 months prior, as job protected?"264 Fortney Scott from the National Association of Manufacturers explains how FMLA is difficult for employees to deal with. "The difficulties faced by employers are mirrored by those of employees. Our members note that the cumbersome and often confusing medical certification forms are frequently resisted by health care providers. Employees report that their providers routinely stated that `we do not.
Pregnancy: Pregnancy Category C Concern for the teratogenicity of caffeine is not relevant when administered to infants. In studies performed in adult animals, caffeine as caffeine base ; administered to pregnant mice as sustained release pellets at 50 mg kg less than the maximum recommended intravenous loading dose for infants on a mg m2 basis ; , during the period of organogenesis, caused a low incidence of cleft palate and exencephaly in the fetuses. There are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women. ADVERSE REACTIONS Overall, the reported number of adverse events in the double-blind period of the controlled trial was similar for the caffeine citrate and placebo groups. The following table shows adverse events that occurred in the double-blind period of the controlled trial and that were more frequent in caffeine citrate treated patients than placebo and acomplia.
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Slowly while the risks were read quickly; and there was distracting video while the side effects were being read. The agency arranged for a prompt review of a new commercial, which was aired quickly. DDMAC issued a second letter to Schering-Plough for Claritin on September 8, 1997, 86 after the violations had been resolved. In the letter, FDA objected to the 800 number response as being promotional without providing risk information. Other enforcement letters followed, including: Accolate: An October 1, 1997 letter to Zeneca complained about a commercial for Accolate, an asthma inhaler, in which people were engaged in vigorous exercise. FDA objected because the commercial suggested that Accllate was effective for exercise-induced asthma.87 Muse: A February 19, 1998 letter to Vivus for Muse, an erectile dysfunction product, said the risk information was not communicated strongly enough. FDA also objected to a print advertisement for Muse because the type size of the benefits was much larger than that for the risks. FDA also objected to the "context" of the print advertisement; "the prominent headline `Impotence Is Optional' implies that Muse is more effective than has been demonstrated because it lacks adequate context."88 Depo-Provera: FDA said the risk information in this commercial by Upjohn was not presented in a way that was comparable to the benefits. FDA also objected to the statement "ask your health care provider if Depo-Provera is right for you."89 FDA stated that the " . focus on whether the product is `right' for the patient undermines the purpose of this part of an `adequate provision' procedure, which is to let the consumer know that there is additional product information that they can get from different sources."90 MetroGel Topical Gel: A March 20, 1998 letter to Galderma Labs for MetroGel, a topical treatment for rosacea, claimed that a broadcast commercial used general terms to refer to adverse events rather than specific statements. FDA also objected because the commercial used language not understood by the consumer.91 Monurol: FDA objected to a campus poster because its headline "One Time. One Dose. You're Better" implied a higher efficacy than demonstrated in the clinical trials, even though an asterisk pointed to a footnote that said "no antibiotic is 100% effective."92 FDA also objected because the poster did not present enough risk information and implied a comparison with another product without presenting the competitor's efficacy data.93 Propecia: FDA objected to the headline of an advertisement in Time magazine that said, "One day science will create a pill for hair loss. That day is today." FDA said the advertisement "implies that the drug is useful in a broader range of conditions than has been demonstrated. Propecia is indicated for a specific type of hair loss "94 Zyban: FDA objected that during the audio presentation of the major risks "there are visual presentations of falling matches, a falling lighter, and falling cigarettes. The appearance of these visual presentations interferes with the viewers' ability to listen to and process the information "95.
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CPT and HCPCS Procedure Code Duplication When both CPT and HCPCS coding sets contain procedure codes representing the same service the duplicate codes will be considered mutually exclusive. Abraxane paclitaxel protein-bound particles for injectable suspension ; Abraxane is medically appropriate for patients with carcinoma of the breast 174.0 174.9, 175.0 ; when the following criteria are met: 1. The patient must have a diagnosis of metastatic breast cancer stage III or IV ; . Abraxane is indicated after the patient has failed combination chemotherapy for metastatic breast cancer, or has a relapse within six months of adjuvant chemotherapy. 3. Prior therapy should have included an anthracycline unless clinically contraindicated. The length of approval is three months. A new request should include patient's clinical response to the drug. Acupuncture 97810 and 97811 ; Acupuncture will be considered medically appropriate for osteoarthritis of the knee 715.00, 715.09, 715.10, and 715.98 ; . A maximum of 12 sessions within a 12-month period will be allowed. Automatic implantable Cardioverter Defibrillator AICD ; Consistent with CMS, AICD will be considered appropriate as follows: 1. Patients with ischemic dilated cardiomyopathy IDCM ; , documented prior myocardial infarction MI ; , New York Heart Association NYHA ; Class II, III or IV heart failure and measured left ventricular ejection fraction LVEF ; 35%. 2. Patients with nonischemic dilated cardiomyopathy NIDCM ; more than nine months, NYHA Class II, III or IV heart failure, and measured LVEF 35 and aldara and accolate, for example, zafirlukast accolate.
Indifferent stage--night vision decreases by approximately 28 percent, heart and respiratory rate increases, and the person is unaware of the symptoms. Compensation stage--in addition to all indifferent stage signs, night vision is reduced by 50 percent. Disturbance stage--initial awareness of symptoms. Air hunger, headache, amnesia, decreased level of consciousness and belligerence are experienced. Nausea and vomiting occur, mainly in children. Critical stage--inability to remain upright is rapidly followed by unconsciousness, seizures, coma and death. If signs and symptoms of hypoxia in patients or Air Crew Members are ignored, they may result in death. Supplemental oxygen therapy is a prime intervention for both Air Crew Members and patients. The type and amount of oxygen delivery depends upon the condition of the patient and or Air Crew Member. the ability to properly auscultate lung, heart, and bowel sounds and blood pressures. Adaptive monitoring procedures include palpation of blood pressures and observation and palpation of the chest for abnormal excursion or increased dyspnea ; and abdomen for increased distension or guarding ; . Second, constant exposure to aircraft noise not only temporarily affects hearing ability but may promote hearing loss over a long period. Vibration, and thermal change, depending on whether the change is to greater heat or more cold, can have either an antagonistic or a synergistic effect. The body's primary response to heat exposure is vasodilation and activation of the cooling mechanisms. Cold exposure and vibration stimulate vasoconstriction and decrease sweating. Consequently, in rotorcraft, particularly during hotweather operations, the vasoconstriction caused by vibration can override or impair the function of the body's cooling mechanism by decreasing the ability to sweat.
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Introduction Idiopathic Parkinson's disease PD ; is a disabling disease that afflicts about 2 per cent of the population over the age of 60. Most of the motor deficits in PD result from progressive loss of pigmented dopaminergic neurons in the rostral midbrain area 1 ; . Treatment has enabled patients to remain ambulatory for about 75 per cent of the disease course. Despite optimal-dose dopaminomimetic therapy, complex motor disturbances become apparent within five to ten years of symptom onset 2, 3 ; . One very common and unique clinical feature in this late stage of PD is freezing. Freezing is a sudden, unforeseen state of immobility that occurs periodically during walking, speech and hand movements, or during the sequential execution of distinct movements 4 ; . Because freezing is resistant to drug therapy, there has recently been renewed interest in nonpharmacological treatment programmes 5 ; . Some physiotherapists have used rotational exercises, such as rapid spinning, and observed beneficial effects on balance, posture, gait and freezing 6 ; . Kanazawa 7 ; suggested that freezing might be related to vestibular dysfunction and Reichert et al. 8 ; corroborated these findings by showing decreased or absent vestibular responses in PD patients with severe symptoms. Pastor et al. 9 ; , however, disagreed with these conclusions and claimed that vestibular dysfunction did not explain the postural deficits of patients affected by PD. The operational circuits involved in freezing remain poorly understood and there is, to date, no conclusive explanation as to why rotational exercises are effective in PD. In an unpublished study, we found that PD patients seem to freeze when requested to switch over from a reaction-time task lifting the foot ; to the `stand up and walk' task. The timing of the onset of the premotor silence period OPMSP ; , observed in the EMG of the m. tibialis anterior during the foot-lifting reaction test preceding the attempt to `stand up and go', seemed to be related to inducement of freezing in PD. The present study therefore had four objectives: i ; to measure the OPMSP in the m. tibialis anterior of frequent freezing PD patients during a `foot-lifting' reaction time test preceding the sudden command: `stand up and go'; ii ; to test the effect of rotational exercises on the OPMSP; iii ; to determine the influence of the OPMSP on reported freezing; and iv ; to examine the predictive value of the OPMSP as regards short and long-term therapeutic responses to rotational exercises.
L O N Common Brand Names Inhaled Corticosteroids QVAR Azmacort Aerobid, Aerobid-M Flovent, Flovent Diskus Pulmicort Turbuhaler and Respules Combination Products Advair Fluticasonesalmeterol Mast Cell Stabilizers Intal Tilade Long-Acting Beta2-Agonist Serevent Diskus Foradil Oral Corticosteroids Prednisone, Deltasone, Orasone, etc. PediaPred, Prelone, Orapred Decadron, etc. Cortef prednisolone dexamethasone hydrocortisone prednisone Effectively reduces swelling, inflammation and mucous production. These products are used with beta2-agonists and or ipratropium to treat a severe asthma attack. Long-term use can lead to numerous side effects Leukotriene Inhibitors Accolatr Singular Zyflo Theophylline Slo-Bid, Uniphyl, Theo-Dur, etc. theophylline Relax the smooth muscle of the lungs and pulmonary blood vessels Yes zafirlukast montelukast zileutin Reduce inflammation in the lungs caused by asthma No No No Yes, in most strengths Yes Yes, in most strengths Yes, in most strengths salmeterol fometerol Relaxes the muscle of the lungs so that more oxygen can reach the blood No No cromolyn sodium nedocromil Reduces the inflammation that is caused by asthma Yes, except inhaler No Contains an inhaled corticosteroid and long acting beta2-agonist No beclomethasone triamcinolone flunisolide fluticasone budesonide Decreases the swelling, inflammation and mucous production in the airways associated with asthma; most effective products at preventing hospitalization No No No Generic Name How Do They Work? Generic Available?.
In recent months, MDwise has had inquiries regarding its Preferred Drug List PDL ; and the 2003 FDA black box warning for long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists that recently underwent an update by the FDA. Specifically, these inquiries have questioned the preference for adjunctive use of beta2-adrenergic agonists vs. leukotriene receptor antagonists on the MDwise PDL. Consistent with the FDA, the MDwise Clinical Policy Committee's review of the evidence found that the use of longacting beta2-agonists outweighs the risk. In reviewing the updated black box warning, the FDA chose very careful language that is much more clear than the original black box language in supporting the use of long-acting beta2adrenergic agonists as adjunctive therapy. The FDA states that when treating patients with asthma, that long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists should only be prescribed for patients not adequately controlled on other asthma-controller medications e.g., low to medium-dose inhaled corticosteroids ; or whose disease severity clearly warrants initiation of treatment with 2 maintenance therapies. This wording is consistent with the National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute's National Asthma Education and Prevention Program NAEPP ; , Expert Panel Report: Guidelines for the Diagnosis and Management of Asthma recommendations for use of long-acting beta2-agonist upon which the MDwise PDL is based. The Salmeterol Multi-center Asthma Research Trial SMART ; that contributed to the 2003 black box warning consisted of a randomized, double-blind placebo controlled study in which salmeterol was added to "usual asthma therapy". Adherence to asthma medications other than the study drug, salmeterol, were not controlled or accounted for in the study. Without controlling for these other asthma medications, conclusions are not without unanswered questions such as whether or not the concurrent use of an inhaled corticosteroid would modify the result ; . Published studies, MDwise data and clinical practice tell us that asthma patients' adherence to chronic anti-inflammatories can be poor, and use of beta-agonists without a corresponding anti-inflammatory is known to be life-threatening. For this reason the MDwise PDL specifically does not allow for long-acting beta2-agonists to be used as monotherapy. Inhaled corticosteroids remain the cornerstone and gold-standard for asthma therapy. When used correctly, no other class of medications has shown as significant a reduction in asthma symptoms and adverse outcomes. When control of asthma cannot be obtained by an inhaled corticosteroid alone, MDwise and the Expert Panel of the NAEPP prefers the adjunctive use of a long-acting beta2-agonist. This preferred status is supported by the evidence that long-acting beta2-agonists as adjunctive therapy provide superior improvement in lung function and asthma symptoms when compared to leukotriene antagonists. Both SINGULAIR and ACCOLATE are available on the MDwise formulary for your asthma patients: Age 5 years old with a pharmacy claim s ; in the last 45 days for an inhaled corticosteroid AND an inhaled long acting beta2-agonist Age 6 years old with a pharmacy claim in the last 45 days for an inhaled corticosteroid.
Health Implications: Glutathione-S-transferase affords protection against oxidative stress especially by reducing hydrogen peroxide and by regenerating oxidized vitamins C and E ; . GST also detoxifies electrophilic compounds including solvents, herbicides, fungicides, polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons and heavy metals Hg, Pb, Cd ; . Decreased glutathione conjugation capacity may increase toxic burden and increase oxidative stress resulting in a greater risk for various cancers and fatigue syndromes, especially if exposed to toxic compounds. Minimizing Risk: Liberally consume brassica vegetables broccoli, cauliflower, kale, cabbage, bok choi, etc. ; and allium vegetables onions, garlic, shallots, etc. ; . Regardless of genotype, increasing the body's production of glutathione will reduce oxidative stress and afford greater protection against a wide array of toxins. Numerous supplements can help raise glutathione levels including liberal consumption of colorful vegetables and fruits, vitamin C, n-acetylcysteine and milk thistle. Vitamin E supplementation may also be helpful. Consult your health care provider to find the supplement regimen that best fits your overall health needs. If you smoke, stop. Avoid exposure to herbicides, fungicides, insect sprays and industrial solvents. Physician Recommendations, because accolat4 asthma.
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1. Wong WD. Endosonography of the anal canal. Perspectives in Colon and Rectal Surgery 1998; 10: 1-21. Poen AC, Felt-Bersma RJ. Endosonography in benign anorectal disease: an overview. Scand J Gastroenterol Suppl 1999; 230: 4048. Williams AB, Bartram CI, Halligan S, Spencer JA, Nicholls RJ, Kmiot WA. Anal sphincter damage after vaginal delivery using threedimensional endosonography. Obstet Gynecol 2001; 97: 770-775. Tjandra J, Milsom JW, Stolfi VM, et al. Endoluminal ultrasound defines anatomy of the anal canal and pelvic floor. Dis Colon Rectum 1992; 35: 465-470. Bachman Nielsen M, Pedersen JF, Hauge C, et al. Endosonography of the anal sphincter. Findings in healthy volunteers. AJR 1991; 157: 1199-1202. Blatchford GJ. Anal ultrasonography in the evaluation of fecal incontinence. Semin Colon Rectal Surg 1995; 6: 99-104. Burnett SJD, Bartram CI. Endosonographic variations in the normal internal anal sphincter. Int J Colorect Dis 1991; 6: 2-4. Burnett SJD, Spence-Jones C, Speakman CTM, et al. Unsuspected sphincter damage following childbirth revealed by anal endosonography. Br J Radiol 1999; 64: 225-227. Sultan AH, Kamm MA, Hudson CN, et al. Anal sphincter disruption during vaginal delivery. N Engl J Med 1993; 329: 1905-1911. Zetterstrom J, Mellgren A, Jensen LL, Wong WD, Kim DG, Lowry AC, Madoff RD, Congilosi SM. Effect of delivery on anal sphincter morphology and function. Dis Colon Rectum1999; 42: 1253-1260. 11. Speakman CTM, Burnett SJD, Kamm MA, et al. Sphincter injury after anal dilatation demonstrated by anal endosonography. Br J Surg 1991; 78: 1429-1430. Tjandra JJ, Han WR, Ooi BS, Nagesh A, Thorne M. Faecal incontinence after lateral internal sphincterotomy is often associated with coexisting occult sphincter defects: a study using endoanal ultrasonography. ANZ J Surg 2001; 71: 598-602. Deen KI, Kumar D, Williams JG, et al. Anal sphincter defects: correlation between endoanal ultrasound and surgery. Ann Surg 1993; 218: 201-205. Sultan AH, Kamm MA, Talbot IC, et al. Anal endosonography for identifying external sphincter defects confirmed histologically. Br J Surg 1994; 81: 463-465. Bachmann Nielsen M, Dammegaard L, Pedersen JF. Endosonographic assessment of the anal sphincter after surgical reconstruction. Dis Colon Rectum 1994; 37: 434-438 and accutane.
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Accepted. Please note that there have been major changes to coverage of the Selective Cox-2 Inhibitors and Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists to be effective April 1, 2003. SELECTIVE COX-2 INHIBITORS CELEBREX & VIOXX ; : The Code 1 status for Celebrex celecoxib ; and Vioxx rofecoxib ; has been deleted and only those prescriptions prescribed for members on concurrent warfarin therapy or members age 75 and older will be covered without a Treatment Authorization Request TAR ; . The PHC authorization criteria will be as follows: Member must have a documented history of peptic ulcer disease or GI bleed Member must be on concurrent use of chronic oral corticosteroid therapy Member must have had a previous trial of two 2 ; formulary NSAIDs, one of which must have been etodolac, diclofenac or salsalate LEUKOTRIENE RECEPTOR ANTAGONISTS ACCOLATE & SINGULAIR ; : Open formulary status for Acvolate zafirlukast ; and Singulair montelukast ; has been deleted and only those prescriptions prescribed for members who have had a trial of an oral inhaled corticosteroid and or a nasal corticosteroid for Singulair ; will be covered without a Treatment Authorization Request TAR ; . Members on current therapy of Accolate or Singulair will be allowed to continue therapy without a TAR. The PHC authorization criteria will be as follows: Accolate Treatment of asthma in members who are unable to take or not controlled on an inhaled corticosteroid. Singulair Treatment of asthma in members who are unable to take or not controlled on an inhaled corticosteroid. Treatment of seasonal allergic rhinitis for members who are unable to take or have failed therapy with a nasal corticosteroid.
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